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I don't know the grammar from <three days to see>
Helen keller say the sentence in her book——I have often thought it would be a blessing if each human being were stricken blind and deaf for a few days at some time during his early adult life. Darkness would make him more appreciative of sight; silence would teach him the joys of sound. Why she use “ were” in the front of words , but the after she use “ his” ,I feel it is contradictory. why or N? Could you give me a explanation? Thanks in advance.
She uses ‘were’ because she is making a hypothesis, talking about something that is not true but might conceivably be. That’s called a ‘conditional’ in grammar.
And with conditionals (many other languages have them as well) English historically used the plural form of the past tense. BUT today there is no difference between singular (one person) and plural (more than one person)… except with the verb ‘to be’: was/were.
That why it is correct to say: If I were you… If Jesus were to return today… If it were to hail tomorrow…
OK?
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